Let us consider 1 John 2:2
1 John 2:2 - 2And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Let's focus on the word "propitiation". Strong's number 2434 - hilasmos; atonement, i.e. (concr.) an expiator: -propitiation
Question: If Jesus is the One Who offers Himself to appease the Father for OUR sin, if He is the One Who satisfies an infinitely holy God's justice in dealing with OUR sin; if He is the One Who pays the penalty for OUR sin - OUR sin ... Then it says that He has done so for the whole world as well...
How is it possible that He has done so for us (actual)
And also for the world (potential)?
I do not see how the definition for propitiation can be both actual and potential, especially in view of verse 1, view both together - 1My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous:
2And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
Calvinists and nonCals, what say you?
Labels: propitiation


